Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 00:49
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Where's the Civil War everyone on the left said would happen?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why do wives cheat on their loyal husbands?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Why does Filipino culture dictate that parents should be treated as gods?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.